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Nah its actually what granted citizenship.
Property isn't a citizen, and freeing the slaves didn't make them citizens.
Before this amendment, the supreme court had ruled that black people "were never intended" to be citizens under the constitution.
During the rebuilding of the US after the civil war, this got added, so that that nonsense ruling (which was argued against, even then, since there was no such phrasing in the constitution) had no power. Instead, being born in the US was enough, which was true for basically every freed slave at that point in history.
So they were officially not citizens, in the whole nation, just before the civil war. Then they were freed by the 13th amendment, and made citizens in this one, and then the 15th protected the right to vote regardless of race or other things.
Thanks for that reply. I don't have anything to add, just appreciate that.
So doesn't it stand to reason that the amendment initially was intended for slaves, whose parents were citizens of another country before being enslaved?
Most slaves parents were also born here, at that point in time.
So it's incorrect to think of them as citizens of any country, at the time.
The amendment was primarily for slaves, yes. I responded with a nah because the comment above mine asked if this was a ploy to remove their citizenship in some way. It wasn't, the supreme court had their own racist ploy for that.